All Crop Quizzes from Nem Raj Sunda
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Rice Set No 1
1. IR 8 variety of rice was introduced in India from?
Explanation: IR 8 was a high-yielding semi-dwarf rice variety developed by the International Rice Research Institute (IRRI) in the Philippines. It was introduced to India in 1966 and played a significant role in the Green Revolution.
2. S1: Tillage operations in wheat decrease bulk density.
S2: Tillage operations in rice increase bulk density in the case of puddling.
Explanation: Tillage in wheat aerates the soil, thus decreasing its bulk density. In contrast, puddling in rice cultivation compacts the soil particles, which increases the bulk density and is beneficial for water retention.
3. Which gene is responsible for dwarfness in rice?
Explanation: The semi-dwarf characteristic in many high-yielding rice varieties is attributed to the 'dee-geo-woo-gen' gene, which was instrumental in the development of modern rice cultivars during the Green Revolution. Norin 10 and Rht are dwarfing genes found in wheat.
4. Fragrance in Basmati rice is due to the compound of?
Explanation: The characteristic aroma of Basmati and other aromatic rice varieties comes from the chemical compound 2-acetyl-1-pyrroline.
5. What is the trade name of Butachlor?
Explanation: Butachlor, a selective systemic herbicide used to control annual grasses and certain broadleaf weeds in rice, is commonly sold under the trade name Machete.
6. Toxicity of which compound causes Akiochi disease in rice?
Explanation: Akiochi disease, a physiological disorder in rice, is caused by the toxicity of hydrogen sulfide (H2S) in the soil, which is produced under anaerobic conditions and damages the root system.
7. Kharia disease in rice is caused due to the deficiency of?
Explanation: Khaira disease in rice is a physiological disorder caused by a deficiency of Zinc (Zn) in the soil, leading to chlorosis and stunted growth.
8. A: Rice is a high water-consuming crop with low water use efficiency.
R: Rice requires water for survival, not utilization.
Explanation: Rice consumes a large amount of water, giving it low water use efficiency. This is because a significant portion of the water is used to maintain flooded conditions for growth and weed suppression (survival), rather than being directly utilized by the plant for metabolic processes.
9. What is the test weight of rice?
Explanation: The test weight of a crop is the weight of 1,000 grains. For common rice varieties, this is typically around 25 grams. Basmati rice, however, has a lower test weight of about 21 grams.
10. Which method is also used in rice breeding?
Explanation: All three methods – the three-line (Cytoplasmic Male Sterility), two-line (Environment-sensitive Genic Male Sterility), and one-line (Apomixis) systems – are utilized in the development of hybrid rice varieties.
11. Phalguna variety is tolerant to Zn toxicity?
Explanation: The Phalguna rice variety is known for its tolerance to Iron (Fe) toxicity, not Zinc (Zn) toxicity.
12. Which of the following is not a mutant variety of rice?
Explanation: PHB 71 is a hybrid variety of rice. Prabhabati, Jagannath, and Sattari are all examples of rice varieties developed through mutation breeding.
13. Hulling percentage of rice is?
Explanation: The hulling percentage, which is the weight of rice grain obtained from a given weight of paddy, is generally between 60% and 70%. This is equivalent to approximately two-thirds of the original paddy weight.
14. Which of the following is a non-traditional area of rice growing?
Explanation: While West Bengal, Odisha, and Tamil Nadu are traditional rice-growing states, Punjab became a major rice producer more recently as part of the Green Revolution, making it a non-traditional area for this crop.
15. Beushening is related to?
Explanation: Beushening is a traditional method of intercultural operation practiced in direct-seeded upland rice, particularly in eastern India. It involves cross-ploughing the young rice crop to control weeds and thin out plants.
16. What is the full form of SRI?
Explanation: SRI stands for System of Rice Intensification, a farming methodology aimed at increasing the yield of rice while using less water and fewer inputs.
17. Dr. Monty Jones received the World Food Prize in 2004 for his contribution to?
Explanation: Dr. Monty Jones was awarded the World Food Prize for developing New Rice for Africa (NERICA), which combines the hardiness of African rice with the productivity of Asian rice varieties.
18. What is the fruit type of rice?
Explanation: The fruit of the rice plant, like that of other grasses, is a caryopsis, a type of dry, one-seeded fruit in which the ovary wall is fused with the seed coat.
19. Choose the incorrect statement.
Explanation: All the given statements are correct. Ingo Potrykus is credited with the development of Golden Rice, Yuan Longping is known as the "Father of Hybrid Rice," and Dr. Gurdev S. Khush led the development of "Super Rice" at IRRI. Therefore, none of the statements are incorrect.
20. Propanil (Stam F-34) is the most widely used post-emergence herbicide in which crop?
Explanation: Propanil, often sold under the brand name Stam F-34, is a contact herbicide used extensively for post-emergence control of broadleaf and grassy weeds in rice (paddy) fields.
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Rice Set No 2
1. SRI method of paddy cultivation by Father Henri de Laulanie in 1983 started at?
Explanation: The System of Rice Intensification (SRI) was developed in the early 1980s by the French Jesuit Father Henri de Laulanié in Madagascar. He worked with local farmers to devise a method that could increase yields with fewer inputs.
2. Sowing time of Aus rice?
Explanation: Aus rice is a pre-kharif or summer rice crop. It is typically sown in May-June with the arrival of pre-monsoon showers and harvested in autumn. June-July is the sowing time for Aman (main Kharif) rice, and November-December is for Boro (winter) rice.
3. Main objective of puddling?
Explanation: Puddling destroys soil structure to create an impervious layer, which reduces water percolation. It also helps in controlling weeds by burying them and creating anaerobic conditions. Additionally, it increases the availability of nutrients like iron, manganese, and phosphorus.
4. Indicator crop for deficiency of silicone?
Explanation: Rice is a silicon-accumulating plant and requires it for proper growth, strength, and resistance to pests and diseases. Therefore, it readily shows symptoms of silicon deficiency, making it a good indicator crop for this nutrient.
5. S1: In rice, fertilizer is applied in the reduced zone. S2: Highest nitrogen loss occurs through denitrification.
Explanation: Both statements are correct. In flooded rice paddies, the top layer of soil is oxidized, while the layer below is reduced. Nitrogen fertilizer is placed in the reduced zone to prevent its loss. Denitrification, the conversion of nitrate to nitrogen gas by microbes in anaerobic (reduced) conditions, is the primary mechanism of nitrogen loss in such systems.
6. Seed rate in depong method of rice?
Explanation: The Dapog method is a nursery technique where seedlings are grown without any soil medium on a flat surface. It requires a very high seed density, typically 1.5 to 3.0 kg per square meter of the nursery area. Seedlings are ready for transplanting in 11-14 days.
7. Onion shoot or sliver shoot symptoms are caused by which insect pest?
Explanation: The Asian Rice Gall Midge (Orseolia oryzae) larva feeds at the growing point of the tiller, causing the leaf sheath to grow into a hollow, silvery-white tube that resembles an onion leaf or a silver shoot. This prevents panicle formation.
8. Khaira disease mainly prevails in which stage?
Explanation: Khaira disease, caused by Zinc deficiency, is most prominent in the nursery stage, about 10-15 days after sowing. The seedlings show chlorosis and rusty-brown spots, leading to stunted growth.
9. Which post-harvest process is done in paddy before dehusking, involves partial boiling of the paddy before milling to increase its nutritional value and reduce breakage in milling?
Explanation: Parboiling is a hydrothermal treatment where paddy is soaked, steamed, and dried before milling. This process drives nutrients, especially B vitamins, from the bran into the endosperm, increasing the nutritional value of the polished rice and making the grain harder, which reduces breakage during milling.
10. Choose the incorrect statement.
Explanation: The center of origin for cultivated rice (Oryza sativa) is considered to be South East Asia, specifically the Indo-Burma region. South West Asia is the center of origin for wheat and barley. All other statements are correct.
11. Choose the incorrect answer.
Explanation: All the given seed rates are within the standard recommended range for rice cultivation under different methods. SRI uses a very low seed rate (5-8 kg/ha), transplanted Basmati requires around 35-40 kg/ha, and direct dry broadcasting requires a high seed rate of 100 kg/ha. Therefore, none of the options are incorrect.
12. Choose the incorrect statement about rice.
Explanation: Rice grows best in soils with high clay and organic matter content, like clayey loam, due to their excellent water-holding capacity. Sandy soils are not favorable as they drain too quickly and cannot maintain the flooded conditions required for traditional rice cultivation. All other statements are correct.
13. In the System of Rice Intensification (SRI) cultivation, where alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practiced, results in:
Explanation: The question propositions are missing, but the practice of alternate wetting and drying (AWD) in SRI is known to achieve three main benefits: 1. Reduced water input (saves water), 2. Reduced methane emission (improves soil aeration, cutting emissions from anaerobic bacteria), and 3. Increased seed production (promotes stronger root systems and healthier plants). Therefore, it results in all three positive outcomes.
14. Which amino acid is absent in rice?
Explanation: Rice protein is not completely devoid of any essential amino acid, but it is deficient in Lysine. This means the concentration of Lysine is too low to meet human nutritional requirements, making it the primary limiting amino acid in rice.
15. In which rice lodging does not occur?
Explanation: Lodging (the bending over of plant stems) is a major problem in tall, weak-stemmed varieties. Japonica rice varieties are characterized by short, stiff culms (stems), which make them highly resistant to lodging, even under high nitrogen fertilization. Indica varieties are typically taller and more prone to lodging.
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Wheat and Barley
1. Incorrect statement regarding seed rate is:
Explanation: The recommended seed rate for unirrigated (rainfed) barley is typically higher than for irrigated conditions, around 80-100 kg/ha, to compensate for lower germination and tillering. A rate of 75 kg/ha is too low for unirrigated conditions, making this statement incorrect. The recommended rate for irrigated barley is 100 kg/ha.
2. Salt-tolerant variety of barley:
Explanation: Amber is a well-known variety of barley recognized for its tolerance to saline and alkaline soil conditions, making it suitable for cultivation in salt-affected areas.
3. What is Perling Index?
Explanation: The Pearling Index is a measure used, particularly for barley, to determine the hardness of the grain. It measures the amount of material removed from the grain in a set time by an abrasive process, which correlates with endosperm hardness and malting quality.
4. 2nd most widely cultivated wheat is:
Explanation: The most widely cultivated wheat is Common Bread Wheat (Triticum aestivum). The second most important commercial species is Durum wheat (Triticum durum), also known as macaroni or pasta wheat.
5. Which is a single gene dwarf?
Explanation: Lerma Rojo 64-A, Sujata, and Girija are all examples of single-gene dwarf wheat varieties. Their dwarf stature is controlled by a single dwarfing gene, which was derived from the 'Norin 10' source.
6. Ideal temperature for wheat tillering stage:
Explanation: The tillering (stooling) stage of wheat is a crucial vegetative phase that is favored by cool temperatures. The optimal temperature range for active tillering is between 16-20°C.
7. Incorrect statement regarding two-rowed barley:
Explanation: All the given statements about two-rowed barley are correct. Its botanical name is Hordeum distichon, only the central one of the three spikelets is fertile, and it is considered the oldest form of cultivated barley. Therefore, none of the statements are incorrect.
8. Solar heat treatment is used to control:
Explanation: Solar heat treatment is a seed treatment method particularly effective against internally seed-borne pathogens. It is most famously used to control loose smut of wheat (Ustilago tritici).
9. Max area under wheat is in:
Explanation: India has the largest area under wheat cultivation in the world. However, in terms of production (total tonnage), China is the leader due to higher average yields per hectare.
10. 1st wheat variety having short plant height, lodging resistance, and higher grain yield is:
Explanation: Norin 10 is a Japanese wheat variety that is the source of the semi-dwarfing genes (Rht genes) used to develop modern, short-statured, high-yielding, lodging-resistant wheat cultivars worldwide, which were key to the Green Revolution.
11. Triticale is a cross between:
Explanation: Triticale is a man-made cereal created by crossing Wheat (Triticum) as the female parent and Rye (Secale) as the male parent. While option (A) lists the parent crops, the conventional notation is female × male, so the cross is Wheat × Rye. Since this option is not listed, 'None' is the most appropriate answer here.
12. Correct statement regarding triticale:
Explanation: Triticale is an inter-generic hybrid, as it is a cross between two different genera: Triticum (wheat) and Secale (rye). An inter-specific hybrid is a cross between two species of the same genus. Since all the provided statements (a, b, c, d) are incorrect, the correct choice is 'None'.
13. In nature wheat performs as diploid due to:
Explanation: Bread wheat is an allohexaploid but behaves as a functional diploid during meiosis. This is due to the action of the Ph1 gene, which suppresses pairing between chromosomes of the different ancestral genomes. This gene itself arose from genetic changes, or mutations, during the evolution of wheat.
14. Seminal roots of wheat are:
Explanation: Seminal roots are the first roots to emerge from the germinating seed. They support the plant during its early growth stages but are later superseded by the more extensive, permanent crown root system. Thus, they are considered temporary.
15. Central zigzag axis of wheat grain is called:
Explanation: The central zigzag axis of a grass inflorescence (like the wheat spike or 'ear') to which the spikelets are attached is called the rachis.
16. Average ideal depth of wheat sowing:
Explanation: The ideal sowing depth for timely sown wheat is 5 cm. This depth ensures that the crown roots develop at the proper location (about 2 cm below the soil surface) and provides good germination and anchorage.
17. What type of climates are favorable during grain formation in wheat?
Explanation: During the grain filling and maturity stages, wheat requires bright sunshine and warm, dry conditions. This helps in proper ripening, translocation of photosynthates to the grain, and prevents disease incidence, resulting in bold, high-quality grains.
18. Incorrect statement regarding procurement agency:
Explanation: While NAFED is a nodal agency for procuring pulses and oilseeds, the primary procurement agency for cotton in India is the Cotton Corporation of India (CCI). Therefore, attributing cotton procurement to NAFED is incorrect.
19. Karnal bunt was first reported by:
Explanation: Karnal bunt, a fungal disease of wheat, was first identified and reported by M. Mitra in 1931 near the city of Karnal in Haryana, India.
20. Barley grows well in:
Explanation: Barley is a cool-season crop that is cultivated during the winter months in India. This corresponds to the Rabi season, with sowing in October-November and harvesting in March-April.
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Wheat and Barley
1. Shoot of barley is called:
Explanation: The hollow, jointed stem of a grass or cereal, such as barley, is botanically referred to as a culm.
2. Correct statement:
Explanation: All the provided statements are factually correct. India is the world's second-largest wheat producer after China, Triticum sphaerococcum is the botanical name for Indian Dwarf Wheat, and 100 kg/ha is the standard seed rate for normally sown wheat.
3. What is the recommended rate of application of metsulfuron in wheat in g/ha?
Explanation: Metsulfuron-methyl is a highly effective herbicide used at very low doses. The recommended rate for controlling broadleaf weeds in wheat is just 4 grams of active ingredient per hectare.
4. How many statements are false regarding wheat? a) mimicry weed- Phalaris minor b) objectionable weed- Convolvulus arvensis c) satellite weed- Phalaris minor d) absolute weed- Chenopodium album e) noxious weed- Cyperus spp.
Explanation: All the classifications of weeds in relation to the wheat crop are correct. Phalaris minor is both a mimicry and satellite weed; Convolvulus arvensis is an objectionable weed; Chenopodium album is an absolute weed, and Cyperus spp. are considered noxious weeds. Therefore, no statement is false.
5. Botanical Name Of Barley:
Explanation: The botanical name for common barley is Hordeum vulgare. Zea mays is maize (corn), and Triticum aestivum is common bread wheat.
6. Alternate host of black stem rust of wheat in India is:
Explanation: Black stem rust, caused by the fungus Puccinia graminis f. sp. tritici, is a heteroecious rust, meaning it requires two unrelated hosts to complete its life cycle. In India, species of Berberis (barberry) act as the alternate host.
7. Energy-rich drinks from barley malt are:
Explanation: Barley is malted (germinated and dried) to convert its starches into sugars. This malt extract is a key ingredient in popular nutritional powder drinks like Bournvita, Boost, and Horlicks.
8. Two varieties of Barley are:
Explanation: Barley varieties are primarily classified based on whether the husk (or hull) is attached to the grain. In hulled barley, the husk is tightly adhered, while in husk-less (or naked) barley, it is loose and easily removed during threshing.
9. The rotation intensity of rice-wheat-rice-fallow rotation is:
Explanation: The crop rotation consists of 3 crops (rice, wheat, rice) grown over a period of 2 years (rice-wheat in year 1, rice-fallow in year 2). Cropping intensity is calculated as (Number of crops / Number of years) x 100. So, (3 / 2) x 100 = 150%.
10. Barley crop needs ________:
Explanation: Barley is a rabi (winter) crop that thrives in a cool and dry climate. While it can tolerate some frost at vegetative stages, prolonged frost can be harmful. Hot and humid conditions are unsuitable.
11. Incorrect statement for barley is:
Explanation: Rajasthan is the largest producer of barley in India, and it also leads in terms of area under cultivation. Therefore, the statement that Uttar Pradesh leads in area is incorrect.
12. Incorrect statement is:
Explanation: All statements are contextually correct. Cycocel is a known dwarfing agent. Buckwheat is not a true cereal and belongs to the Polygonaceae family. Ideal harvest moisture is 25-30%. The two major dwarfing genes (Rht1 and Rht2) from Norin-10 are the foundation of the Green Revolution dwarf wheat varieties. Therefore, none of the statements are incorrect.
13. Common hybridization method in wheat:
Explanation: The Goojo or approach method is a simplified technique used for crossing in wheat. While backcrossing and selection are broader breeding strategies, the Goojo method is a specific, practical technique for the act of hybridization itself.
14. Highest quantity minerals among cereals found in:
Explanation: Among the major cereals, Bajra (Pearl Millet) is exceptionally rich in minerals, particularly iron, zinc, and magnesium, surpassing the mineral content of rice, wheat, and barley.
15. Optimum temperature for normal wheat sowing:
Explanation: The optimum soil temperature for good germination and seedling establishment in wheat is between 20-25°C. Higher temperatures can lead to poor establishment, while lower temperatures slow down germination.
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Maize+Pearl Millet+Sorghum
1. DIMBOA is a chemical present in maize stem at an early stage of crop growth which protects it from?
Explanation: DIMBOA (2,4-dihydroxy-7-methoxy-1,4-benzoxazin-3-one) is a naturally occurring hydroxamic acid, a type of chemical compound that acts as a natural insecticide in young maize plants, providing resistance specifically against the European corn borer (a type of stem borer).
2. The female pistillate inflorescence, also called the _______, comes out from a ______ generally halfway on the stem.
Explanation: The female flowering part of the maize plant is the ear, which develops into the cob. It emerges from a leaf axil, which is located at a node on the stem.
3. Which of the following crop is known as 'Queen Of Cereals'?
Explanation: Maize is often called the 'Queen of Cereals' due to its high genetic yield potential compared to other cereals. Wheat is known as the 'King of Cereals'.
4. Choose the incorrect statement about maize:
Explanation: The male part of the maize flower is the tassel, which produces pollen, and is staminate. The pistillate part is the female flower (the ear).
5. Amber is a variety of which type of corn?
Explanation: Amber is a known variety of popcorn (Zea mays everta), which is characterized by a hard, moisture-resistant hull that allows pressure to build inside when heated, causing it to pop.
6. Which of the following crop is sensitive to both excessive moisture condition and drought conditions?
Explanation: Maize is highly susceptible to waterlogging (excess moisture), which damages the root system, and is also very sensitive to drought, especially during its critical flowering and grain-filling stages.
7. S1: In maize plants, silk appears first, then tassels.
S2: Maize is very susceptible to both excess water and moisture stress.
Explanation: In maize, the male flower (tassel) emerges before the female flower (silk), a condition known as protandry. The statement that maize is sensitive to both waterlogging and drought is correct.
8. Rabi maize is extensively grown in:
Explanation: Bihar has emerged as a major state for the cultivation of rabi (winter) maize, with favorable climatic conditions leading to high productivity during this season.
9. What is the chromosome number in maize crop?
Explanation: The diploid chromosome number (2n) for maize (Zea mays) is 20.
10. Ancestor of maize crop is?
Explanation: It is widely accepted that modern maize was domesticated from a wild grass called teosinte (specifically, Euchlaena mexicana or a close relative), native to Mexico.
11. Which of the following variety is Sweet Corn?
Explanation: Both Priya and Madhuri are well-known varieties of sweet corn (Zea mays convar. saccharata), which have a high sugar content due to a mutation that retards the conversion of sugar to starch. Kanchan is a variety of flint corn.
12. Maize grains are deficient in which amino acids?
Explanation: The protein in standard maize grain is of low biological value for monogastric animals (like humans) because it is deficient in the essential amino acids lysine and tryptophan.
13. S1: Maize has both male and female flowers on the same plant.
S2: Both male and female on the same flower in maize causes self-pollination?
Explanation: Maize is monoecious, meaning it has separate male (tassel) and female (ear) flowers on the same plant, making S1 true. However, the flowers are separate, so it is primarily cross-pollinated, making S2 false.
14. Jumping genes responsible for the 'golden color' of kernels were first isolated by?
Explanation: Barbara McClintock won the Nobel Prize for her discovery of transposable elements, or "jumping genes," in maize, which she identified by observing their effect on kernel color.
15. S1: In maize plant, male flowers develop first.
S2: This is also known as protogyny condition.
Explanation: Statement 1 is true; the male flower (tassel) matures before the female flower (silk). This condition is called protandry, not protogyny. Protogyny is when the female part matures first. Therefore, statement 2 is false.
16. Which types of roots are present in maize crop?
Explanation: Maize has a fibrous root system that includes seminal roots (initial roots from the seed), crown roots (main roots from lower nodes), and prop roots (adventitious roots from nodes above the ground that provide support).
17. First time 1961 double cross hybrid of maize?
Explanation: In 1961, under the All India Coordinated Maize Improvement Project, the first set of four double-cross hybrids were released for commercial cultivation. These were Ganga-1, Ganga-101, Deccan, and Ranjit.
18. Protoandrous condition is found in:
Explanation: Protandry (or protoandry) is the condition where the male reproductive organs mature before the female ones. This is characteristic of maize, where the tassel sheds pollen before the silks on the ear are fully receptive.
19. What is the test weight of maize?
Explanation: Test weight is the weight of 1000 grains. Maize has large, heavy kernels, and its test weight is typically in the range of 200-250 grams. The other values are more typical for small-grained cereals like rice or wheat.
20. Which type of maize is mostly grown in India?
Explanation: Flint corn (Zea mays indurata), known for its hard outer layer, is the most predominantly grown type of maize in India. Its hardness makes it more resistant to insect damage during storage.
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Maize+Pearl Millet+Sorghum
1. Which among the following is an example of an erosion-permitting crop?
Explanation: Erosion-permitting crops are those that are planted in wide rows, leaving much of the soil surface bare and vulnerable to erosion by wind and water. Maize is a classic example. Cowpea, groundnut, and green gram are legumes that provide good ground cover and are considered erosion-resisting crops.
2. White bud of maize is caused due to deficiency of?
Explanation: The appearance of a white or pale yellow band at the base of the newest leaves in the whorl, known as "white bud," is a characteristic symptom of Zinc (Zn) deficiency in maize.
3. S1: In flint maize, the endosperm is soft and starchy.
S2: In popcorn, the endosperm is hard.
Explanation: S2 is correct; popcorn has a very hard endosperm. However, S1 is incorrect; Flint corn (Zea mays indurata) is characterized by a hard, vitreous (glassy) outer endosperm layer surrounding a small, soft, starchy center, not a completely soft endosperm. The correct answer based on facts should be D.
4. S1: Priya and Madhuri are popular varieties of sweet corn.
S2: Ganga-1 was released for commercial cultivation in 1961.
Explanation: Both statements are correct. Priya and Madhuri are well-known sweet corn hybrid varieties in India. Ganga-1 was one of the first four maize hybrids released for commercial cultivation in 1961 under the All India Coordinated Maize Improvement Project.
5. Choose the incorrect statement in maize.
Explanation: Maize is known as the 'Queen of Cereals' because of its high genetic yield potential. The title 'King of Cereals' belongs to Wheat. All other statements are correct.
6. QPM is developed by which gene?
Explanation: Quality Protein Maize (QPM) was developed by utilizing the Opaque-2 gene. This gene modifies the endosperm protein, doubling the amount of the essential amino acids lysine and tryptophan, thus enhancing its nutritional value.
7. Water requirement for maize is about 500 to 2000 mm.
Explanation: The statement is false. The water requirement for maize is typically in the range of 500 to 800 mm, depending on climate and duration. A requirement of 2000 mm is excessively high and more typical for crops like sugarcane or flooded rice.
8. What is the origin of the maize crop?
Explanation: The center of origin for maize (Zea mays) is widely accepted to be the central highlands of Mexico, where its wild ancestor, teosinte, is found.
9. Which of the following maize pests attack mainly during the seedling stage?
Explanation: The Maize Shoot Fly (Atherigona spp.) is a major pest during the early stages of the crop. Its maggot bores into the central shoot of seedlings, causing the characteristic "dead heart" symptom. The other pests can attack at various stages.
10. African Tall variety is a ________ variety of maize.
Explanation: 'African Tall' is a popular composite variety of maize known for its tall stature and high biomass production, making it ideal for cultivation as a green fodder crop for livestock.
11. Choose the incorrect statement in maize.
Explanation: While lysine is technically present in maize, the statement is contextually incorrect because standard maize protein (zein) is famously deficient in the essential amino acid lysine, which limits its nutritional value.
12. Ganga-2 and Hi-Starch are varieties of?
Explanation: Ganga-2 and Hi-Starch are classic examples of top-cross hybrids. A top cross is a cross between an inbred line (or single cross) and an open-pollinated variety.
13. Choose the correct answer.
Explanation: All the given seed rates are within the generally recommended ranges for different types of maize cultivation in India. Hybrid maize requires the highest seed rate, followed by composites, while sweet corn requires a lower rate.
14. Choose the incorrect statement in bajra.
Explanation: The parentage for the first pearl millet hybrid, HB-1, is incorrect. By convention, the female parent is listed first. Tift 23A is the male-sterile female line, so the correct cross is Tift 23A × Bil 3B. All other statements are correct milestones in bajra breeding.
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Maize+Pearl Millet+Sorghum
1. International Crops Research Institute for Semi-Arid Tropics is located at?
Explanation: The headquarters of the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) is located at Patancheru, Hyderabad, Telangana, India.
2. Incorrect statement regarding Pusa Napier-1:
Explanation: There seems to be an error in the question or the provided answer. Pusa Napier-1 is a forage variety (C) developed by crossing Pearl Millet (Pennisetum glaucum) and Napier Grass (Pennisetum purpureum) (B). A cross between two different species of the same genus is, by definition, an inter-specific hybrid (A). Therefore, statements A, B, and C are all correct.
3. Early or late sowing of gram results in low yields due to _______ disease.
Explanation: Wilt, caused by the fungus Fusarium oxysporum f. sp. ciceris, is a major soil-borne disease of gram (chickpea). Sowing at a non-optimal time exposes the plant to soil temperatures that are highly favorable for the development and spread of the wilt pathogen.
4. S1: Tillering in pearl millet can compensate for low plant density.
S2: Seed treatment with NaCl or KNO3 gives hardiness to the pearl millet plant.
Explanation: Both statements are correct. Pearl millet has a good tillering capacity, which allows it to produce more stems per plant and compensate for a lower plant population. Seed hardening or osmopriming with salts like NaCl or KNO3 helps improve drought tolerance.
5. S1: Row spacing in multicut sorghum is kept wider than single-cut sorghum.
S2: Sorghum is often a cross-pollinated crop.
Explanation: Both statements are correct. Wider spacing in multicut sorghum allows for better light penetration and air movement, promoting vigorous regrowth after cutting. Sorghum is considered an "often cross-pollinated" crop due to protogyny (female parts mature first), leading to about 5-30% cross-pollination.
6. At what stages should the gram crop be irrigated if two irrigations are available?
Explanation: The most critical water-sensitive stages for gram (chickpea) are flowering and pod formation. Providing irrigation at these two stages ensures proper flower set and grain development, maximizing yield.
7. Test weight of sorghum is __g.
Explanation: Test weight refers to the weight of 1,000 grains. For sorghum, the kernels are relatively large, and the standard test weight is in the range of 25 to 30 grams.
8. Incorrect statement for Pearl Millet is:
Explanation: All the given statements are correct. Pearl millet has a low water requirement (250-350 mm), rainfall during flowering interferes with pollination, its test weight is typically 5-9 g, and rain during grain filling can cause grain mold. Therefore, none of the statements are incorrect.
9. Synonym of sorghum is ______.
Explanation: Sorghum (Sorghum bicolor) is also widely known as 'Great Millet' due to its larger plant size and grains compared to other millets. It is also called Jowar in India.
10. Pod borer is the most common pest of ____________.
Explanation: The gram pod borer (Helicoverpa armigera) is a major and highly destructive insect pest that attacks a wide range of pulse crops, including chickpea (gram), pigeon pea, and others, by feeding on their pods and grains.
11. BC 9 variety of sorghum is recommended against the parasitic weed _______.
Explanation: Striga (witchweed) is a parasitic weed that causes significant yield losses in sorghum. Varieties like BC 9 have been developed and recommended for their tolerance or resistance to Striga infestation.
12. The serious disease of pearl millet is _______.
Explanation: Ergot, caused by the fungus Claviceps fusiformis, is a very serious disease of pearl millet. It infects the florets and replaces the grains with a toxic sclerotial mass, causing direct yield loss and making the produce unfit for consumption.
13. _______ layer formation near sorghum grain attachment coincides closely with the cut-off of assimilate translocation at physiological maturity.
Explanation: The formation of a distinct 'black layer' at the base of the sorghum grain (where it attaches to the plant) is a visual indicator that the grain has reached physiological maturity. This layer physically cuts off any further transfer of nutrients to the grain.
14. Which of the following is a Kabuli variety?
Explanation: This question appears to have an error in the provided answer. Avrodhi (also known as K-850), C-235, Radhey, and L-144 are all varieties of Desi chickpea. Kabuli varieties typically have names like 'Kak-2' or 'L-550'. None of the options listed are standard Kabuli types.
15. Choose Incorrect:
Explanation: All three statements represent incorrect classifications. 'Rajasthan Chari-1' is a single-cut fodder sorghum. 'Meethi Sudan' is a popular multi-cut variety. 'CSH16' is a grain sorghum hybrid, not a sweet sorghum type. Therefore, choosing "All of the above" is correct as all are incorrect statements.
16. S1: In pearl millet, transplanting is successful.
S2: Pearl millet has the highest energy level among whole-grain cereals.
Explanation: Both statements are correct. Transplanting pearl millet seedlings is a successful practice to ensure an optimal plant stand, especially in areas with erratic rainfall. Due to its higher fat content compared to other cereals like wheat and rice, pearl millet provides the highest energy value.
17. Depth of sowing bajra in cm:
Explanation: Bajra (pearl millet) has small seeds and requires shallow sowing for proper germination and emergence. The ideal depth of sowing is 2 to 3 cm.
18. Bleaching of the peduncle beneath the ear is seen in some varieties of _______ at physiological maturity.
Explanation: In some varieties of pearl millet, the peduncle (the stalk supporting the earhead) loses its green color and turns pale or bleached, which is a visual sign that the plant has reached physiological maturity.
19. How much seed of a legume crop should be treated with one packet of Rhizobium culture?
Explanation: A standard packet of Rhizobium culture (usually 200 g) contains enough bacteria to effectively inoculate 10 kg of seeds of a specific legume crop.
20. The scientific name of white gram is _____.
Explanation: White gram, also known as Kabuli chickpea, is often classified specifically as Cicer kabulium. While Cicer arietinum is the species name for all chickpeas, Cicer kabulium is used to distinguish the Kabuli type from the Desi type.
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Maize+Pearl Millet+Sorghum
1. The synonym of Sundhia Jowar is ________.
Explanation: S-1049 is a selection from local sorghum of the Sundhia area of Gujarat. It is popularly known as Sundhia Jowar and is grown for fodder due to its sweet stem.
2. S1. L-550 is a variety of Kabuli gram.
S2. Plants of Desi gram are taller than Kabuli gram.
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct; L-550 is a well-known variety of Kabuli gram (chickpea). Statement 2 is incorrect; generally, Kabuli gram plants are taller and more erect than the shorter, bushy Desi gram plants.
3. S1. Bengal gram requires a fine seed bed for its sowing.
S2. In Kabuli gram, row spacing is kept closer than Desi gram.
Explanation: Both statements are incorrect. Bengal gram (chickpea) performs better in a rough, cloddy seedbed which aids in aeration. Kabuli gram plants are larger and require wider spacing than the smaller Desi gram plants.
4. S1. Sorghum is the king of coarse cereals and a C4 plant.
S2. Indicator plant for Mn deficiency.
Explanation: Statement 1 is true; Sorghum is often called the "king of coarse cereals" and it is a C4 plant, making it efficient in hot, dry climates. Statement 2 is false; Sorghum is an indicator plant for Iron (Fe) deficiency, while Oats are used as an indicator for Manganese (Mn) deficiency.
5. Sorghum young plant contains a glucoside called _______.
Explanation: Young sorghum plants contain a cyanogenic glucoside called Dhurrin. Under certain conditions (like drought or frost), it can break down to release toxic prussic acid (hydrogen cyanide, HCN), which can be fatal to livestock.
6. The most critical stage for water requirement in pearl millet is ______.
Explanation: The earhead emergence and flowering stages are the most critical periods for water in pearl millet. Moisture stress at this time can severely impact pollination, grain set, and overall yield. Among the given choices, earhead emergence represents the peak demand.
7. Incorrect statement:
Explanation: The seed coat of Kabuli chickpea is smooth, while the seed coat of Desi chickpea is rough. The statement incorrectly claims Kabuli is less smooth than Desi. All other comparisons are generally correct.
8. Among 'C-235, Gaurav, Pusa256, Sadbhavna, Samrat, RS11', how many varieties are not blight-resistant?
Explanation: This question is complex as resistance is relative. However, C-235 is famously susceptible to Ascochyta blight. Most of the others (Pusa256, Sadbhavna, Samrat) were specifically bred for resistance or tolerance. Gaurav and RS11 are also known to be susceptible. Thus, at least three varieties are not resistant. The provided answer key may be flawed.
9. Incorrect statement regarding sorghum:
Explanation: This statement is incorrect because it is unsafe to use sorghum for fodder before 50% flowering. The HCN content is highest in the young stages (like the knee-high stage) and decreases significantly as the plant matures. Therefore, it should be harvested for fodder after the 50% flowering stage.
10. Correct statement regarding chickpea:
Explanation: Chickpea is correctly characterized as a self-pollinated, long-day crop that is well-adapted to dryland farming conditions. Protein content is typically higher (21-25%), it has a taproot system, and prefers a rough seedbed.
11. S1. Pearl millet is also known as cat tail millet.
S2. Self-pollination is the rule in pearl millet.
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct; due to its long, dense, cylindrical spike (inflorescence), pearl millet is commonly called cattail millet. Statement 2 is incorrect; pearl millet is a highly cross-pollinated crop because of protogyny (female flowers mature before male flowers).
12. Indian Grass and Fodder Research Institute is located at ______.
Explanation: The Indian Grassland and Fodder Research Institute (IGFRI), a premier institute for research in forage production and its utilization, is located in Jhansi, Uttar Pradesh.
13. Malic and oxalic acids are collected for blood purification from the leaves of ______.
Explanation: The glandular hairs on the leaves and pods of the chickpea plant secrete malic and oxalic acids. These acids give the plant its sour taste and are traditionally collected and used for medicinal purposes, including as a blood purifier.
14. Pulse seeds should be inoculated with the culture of ______.
Explanation: Pulse crops are legumes. They form a symbiotic relationship with Rhizobium bacteria, which live in root nodules and fix atmospheric nitrogen for the plant. Inoculating seeds with the correct Rhizobium strain ensures effective nodulation and nitrogen fixation.
15. Incorrect one is:
Explanation: 'Parbhani Sona' is a variety of Soybean, not Sunflower. 'Parbhani Kranti' is a famous variety of Okra, and 'Parbhani Shakti' is a hybrid of Sorghum. Therefore, the incorrect pairing is Parbhani Sona - Sunflower.
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Sugarcane + Pigeonpea
1. Brix saccharometer reading showing a figure _____ or above indicates sugarcane maturity.
Explanation: A Brix reading, which measures the Total Soluble Solids (mostly sucrose) in the juice, of 16-18% is generally considered the minimum standard for harvesting sugarcane, as it indicates a good level of sugar accumulation. Readings below this suggest the cane is not yet fully mature.
2. Vector for sterility mosaic virus is:
Explanation: Sterility Mosaic Disease (SMD) in pigeon pea is transmitted by the eriophyid mite, Aceria cajani. The mite carries the virus and spreads it from plant to plant as it feeds.
3. Wrapping and propping are important practices followed in ______.
Explanation: Wrapping (tying the lower dry leaves around the cane) and propping (tying canes together for support) are crucial intercultural operations in sugarcane to prevent lodging (falling over) and protect the canes from damage.
4. How many three-eyed budded setts are required for planting one hectare of sugarcane?
Explanation: To achieve the desired plant population, the standard recommendation is to plant 30,000 to 35,000 three-budded setts per hectare. This ensures sufficient germination and tillering to establish a good crop stand.
5. ______ is a saccharophilic bacterium commercialized for sugarcane.
Explanation: Acetobacter diazotrophicus is an endophytic, nitrogen-fixing bacterium that thrives in the high-sugar environment of the sugarcane plant. It is commercialized as a biofertilizer to supplement the crop's nitrogen requirement.
6. S1. Total species of sugarcane: 5
S2. Only 2 species are cultivated.
Explanation: S1 is correct; the genus Saccharum is generally recognized to have five principal species. S2 is incorrect because three species are cultivated: S. officinarum, S. barberi, and S. sinense, although modern hybrids have largely replaced them.
7. Choose the correct statement for sugarcane:
Explanation: Both terms are correct. The inflorescence of sugarcane is technically an open panicle, but it is commonly and widely referred to by the special name 'arrow'.
8. Choose the incorrect statement for sugarcane:
Explanation: Sugarcane is a classic example of a C4 plant. It does not possess C3 photosynthetic pathways. All other statements about sugarcane agronomy are correct.
9. Pigeon pea plant population in the Kharif season:
Explanation: For long-duration, spreading varieties of pigeon pea typically sown in the Kharif season, a lower plant population of around 55,000 to 60,000 plants per hectare is recommended to allow adequate space for growth.
10. S1. Pigeon pea is a shallow-rooted crop.
S2. Pigeon pea is a highly drought-resistant crop.
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; pigeon pea is known for its deep taproot system, which is precisely why Statement 2 is correct. Its deep roots allow it to access moisture from lower soil profiles, making it highly drought-resistant.
11. Striga is a parasitic weed of ______ crop.
Explanation: Striga, commonly known as witchweed, is a major root-parasitic weed that attacks several graminaceous crops, causing severe yield losses in sugarcane, sorghum, and maize.
12. Choose the incorrect statement for sugarcane:
Explanation: The term 'Noble Cane' refers to Saccharum officinarum, which is known for its thick, juicy stalks and high sucrose content. S. barberi is the Indian cane, which is thinner and hardier.
13. S1. For long-duration varieties of pigeon pea, the seed rate is 8-10 kg/ha.
S2. The first hybrid of pigeon pea was ICPH-10.
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect; the seed rate for long-duration pigeon pea is 12-15 kg/ha. Statement 2 is also incorrect; the first commercial pigeon pea hybrid was ICPH-8, released in 1991. Thus, the provided answer key seems to have an error.
14. The Indian Institute of Sugarcane Research is located at ______.
Explanation: The Indian Institute of Sugarcane Research (IISR), which focuses on production technologies, is located in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh. The Sugarcane Breeding Institute (SBI), which focuses on varietal development, is in Coimbatore.
15. Choose the incorrect statement regarding sugarcane:
Explanation: The chromosome number of sugarcane (Saccharum officinarum) is 2n = 80. The notation 4n is incorrect. All other statements are correct facts about sugarcane cultivation in India.
16. The first hybrid of pigeon pea released in 1991 was ______.
Explanation: ICPH-8, developed by ICRISAT, holds the distinction of being the world's first commercial hybrid of a food legume, specifically pigeon pea, released in 1991.
17. S1. A refractometer is also used to measure TSS.
S2. TSS measures sucrose in sugarcane.
Explanation: S1 is correct; a hand-held refractometer is a common tool to measure the Brix or TSS percentage in sugarcane juice. S2 is incorrect because TSS stands for Total Soluble Solids, which includes sucrose but also other sugars, salts, and acids. Sucrose is the main component, but not the only one.
18. How many ratoons of sugarcane are taken economically?
Explanation: While it is possible to take multiple ratoons, the yield and quality of the cane typically decline with each successive ratoon crop due to factors like disease buildup and soil depletion. Generally, only one or at most two ratoon crops are considered economically viable.
19. A small portion of the stem in sugarcane below ground is known as ______.
Explanation: The subterranean portion of the sugarcane stalk, which remains in the ground after harvesting and from which the ratoon crop sprouts, is known as the root stock or stubble.
20. Adsali sugarcane matures in ________.
Explanation: Adsali is a system of planting sugarcane in July-August, which gives it a long growing period of about 16 to 18 months before it matures for harvest. This contrasts with the 12-month duration of the Eksali crop.
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Sugarcane + Pigeonpea
1. Sugarcane is irrigated by ___________ method.
Explanation: As sugarcane is planted in rows, the most common and efficient method of surface irrigation is the furrow method. Water is applied in the furrows between the crop rows, allowing it to seep into the root zone.
2. Pyrilla is the serious pest of _________.
Explanation: Pyrilla perpusilla, the sugarcane leafhopper, is a major sucking pest of sugarcane. It feeds on the sap from the leaves, reducing the plant's vitality and sucrose content, and secretes honeydew which promotes the growth of sooty mould.
3. Gasohol is prepared from 80% alcohol + 20% petrol?
Explanation: The statement is false. Gasohol is typically a mixture of 10% ethanol (alcohol) and 90% petrol (gasoline). A mixture with 80% alcohol would be classified differently, such as E85 (85% ethanol).
4. Red mite spreads disease in pigeon pea called _______.
Explanation: The vector for Sterility Mosaic Disease (SMD) in pigeon pea is the eriophyid mite, Aceria cajani. This mite transmits the virus that causes the disease, leading to stunted growth and failure to produce flowers and pods.
5. Sugarcane inflorescence is known as _______.
Explanation: The inflorescence of the sugarcane plant, which is technically a type of open panicle, is commonly referred to as an 'arrow'. The emergence of this flower is known as arrowing.
6. Earthing in sugarcane should be done in _______.
Explanation: Earthing up, or hilling, is done about 3-4 months after planting, which typically falls during the monsoon season (June-July). This practice helps to support the plant, prevent lodging, suppress weeds, and encourage root growth.
7. Among species of sugarcane, ________ is used for breeding purposes.
Explanation: While all cultivated species have been used in breeding, Saccharum sinense (Chinese cane) and S. barberi (Indian cane) were historically important for introducing hardiness and disease resistance into the high-sugar but delicate S. officinarum (Noble cane).
8. The by-product of sugarcane used in distilleries for manufacturing ethyl alcohol and citric acid is termed as _______.
Explanation: Molasses is the viscous syrup that remains after sugar crystals are removed from the cane juice. It is rich in fermentable sugars and is the primary feedstock for distilleries producing ethanol (ethyl alcohol).
9. Choose the incorrect option:
Explanation: All the given pairings are correct. Nipping (or topping) is a practice in Gram (chickpea). Macrosperma refers to large-seeded types of Lentil. Canker is a known disease of Pigeon pea. Therefore, none of the options are incorrect.
10. S1. Sugarcane is an allopolyploid species.
S2. Cross occurs between two different genera but the same species.
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct; modern sugarcane is an allopolyploid, containing genomes from different species. Statement 2 is incorrect; allopolyploidy arises from crosses between different species (e.g., S. officinarum × S. spontaneum), not different genera or the same species.
11. Crop lodging in sugarcane is due to high nutrient status?
Explanation: The statement is false because lodging is specifically caused by excessive Nitrogen (N) application, which promotes tall, weak, succulent growth. A "high nutrient status" that includes adequate Potassium (K) can actually strengthen the stalk and reduce lodging. The statement is too general.
12. The most common method of sugarcane planting is _______.
Explanation: While other methods exist for specific conditions, the ridge and furrow method is the most widely practiced and common method of planting sugarcane in India. It facilitates irrigation and intercultural operations like earthing up.
13. Red gram is also known as _______.
Explanation: The question or answer key contains an error. Red gram is the common name for Pigeon Pea (Cajanus cajan). It is not known as Sorghum.
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Cotton + Jute
1. S1: Old world cotton is also known as desi cotton. S2: Cotton is a deep-rooted crop.
Explanation: Both statements are correct. Old World cotton species (G. arboreum and G. herbaceum) are referred to as desi cotton in India. Cotton plants are known for their deep taproot system, which helps them access water from lower soil layers, making them relatively drought-tolerant.
2. Seed Rate of Desi Cotton & American Cotton
Explanation: The seed rate for Desi cotton is 10-18 kg/ha, while the seed rate for American cotton, which has larger and fuzzier seeds, is higher at 15-25 kg/ha.
3. Highest fiber length is found in which cotton species?
Explanation: Gossypium barbadense, also known as Egyptian, Pima, or Sea Island cotton, is renowned for producing extra-long staple (ELS) fibers, which are the longest, finest, and most valuable among all cotton species.
4. S1: Weight of lint from 100 seeds is known as Lint index. S2: Ratio of lint to seed cotton is expressed as Ginning percentage.
Explanation: Both statements define key cotton terminology correctly. The lint index measures the amount of fiber per seed, while the ginning percentage (or ginning out-turn, GOT) measures the proportion of lint recovered from the seed cotton after ginning.
5. Weight of one bale of jute is:
Explanation: The standard weight of one bale of raw jute used for trading in India and Bangladesh is 180 kg. For cotton, the standard bale weight is 170 kg.
6. Which of the following Cotton species are known as Desi cotton or Old world cotton?
Explanation: Desi or Old World cottons are the diploid species native to Asia and Africa. These include Gossypium arboreum and Gossypium herbaceum. G. hirsutum is a New World cotton.
7. H-4:
Explanation: H-4, developed by Dr. C.T. Patel in 1970, was the first commercial hybrid of cotton in the world. It is also an intra-specific hybrid (G. hirsutum × G. hirsutum). While B is also correct, A is the most significant and defining achievement of H-4.
8. Ribboning is associated with which crop?
Explanation: Ribboning is a technique in which the fiber-bearing bark is stripped from the jute stalks before retting. This method saves water and reduces the volume of material that needs to be retted.
9. Central Institute of Cotton Research is located at ______.
Explanation: The Central Institute for Cotton Research (CICR), the premier research body for cotton in India, is headquartered in Nagpur, Maharashtra.
10. Jute belongs to family ________.
Explanation: The genus to which jute belongs, Corchorus, was traditionally placed in the Tiliaceae family. However, under modern classification systems (APG), Tiliaceae has been merged into the Malvaceae family, which also includes cotton and okra.
11. Which one is the species of American cotton?
Explanation: American or New World cottons are the tetraploid species that originated in the Americas. This group includes both G. hirsutum (Upland cotton, which accounts for >90% of world production) and G. barbadense (Pima/Egyptian cotton).
12. Choose Incorrect:
Explanation: Corchorus capsularis is White Jute and Corchorus olitorius is Tossa Jute, so options A and B are incorrect pairings. Hibiscus cannabinus is known as Kenaf or Mesta, while Agave and Sisal are different fiber plants from the Agavaceae family. Thus, C is also an incorrect pairing.
13. Chemical used for cotton delinting/deffusing?
Explanation: Delinting is the process of removing the short fuzz fibers from cotton seeds. Commercially, this is done by treating the seeds with concentrated sulphuric acid (H_2SO_4), which digests the cellulose fibers without harming the seed embryo.
14. The processes like steeping, retting, and extraction are the important processes in ______.
Explanation: These are the key stages in extracting bast fibers like jute. Steeping is soaking the stalks in water, retting is the microbial decomposition that loosens the fibers, and extraction is the manual or mechanical separation of the loosened fibers from the woody stalk.
15. Retting is a process by which:
Explanation: Retting is a controlled microbiological process where bacteria and fungi break down the pectin and other gummy substances that bind the bast fibers to the woody core of the plant, allowing the fibers to be easily separated.
16. S1: Longer outgrowth of cotton seed is called lint. S2: Shorter is called fuzz.
Explanation: Both statements are correct. The cotton seed has two types of fibrous outgrowths: the long, spinnable fibers are called lint, and the short, non-spinnable fibers that remain on the seed after ginning are called fuzz.
17. World's first commercial hybrid variety of cotton is?
Explanation: H-4, an intra-specific hybrid of G. hirsutum, was developed by Dr. C.T. Patel in Gujarat, India, and released in 1970. It is credited as being the world's first commercial cotton hybrid.
18. For fiber purpose, Jute may be harvested at any time:
Explanation: The optimal stage for harvesting jute for fiber is at the small pod stage, which is after flowering but before the pods mature. This stage offers the best compromise between fiber yield (which increases with time) and fiber quality (which decreases as the plant becomes more lignified).
19. Choose Incorrect:
Explanation: The Old World cottons (G. herbaceum, G. arboreum) are diploid (2n = 2x = 26). The New World cottons (G. hirsutum, G. barbadense) are allotetraploid (2n = 4x = 52). The statement that G. hirsutum is hexaploid (6x) is incorrect.
20. Fibre fineness is measured by:
Explanation: An Arealometer is a specialized instrument used in the textile industry to measure the fineness (or micronaire value) of cotton fibers by measuring the resistance to airflow through a sample of fibers.
21. S1: Ribboning in jute is very common in India. S2: Optimum temperature required for retting is about 34°C.
Explanation: S1 is incorrect; while ribboning is a recommended water-saving technology, the traditional method of whole-stalk retting is still far more common among jute farmers in India. S2 is correct; the microbial activity responsible for retting is most efficient at a water temperature of around 34°C.
22. King of appraisal fiber
Explanation: Cotton is universally known as the "King of Apparel Fibers" due to its global dominance, versatility, comfort, and importance in the textile and clothing industry.
23. Flare Square is a characteristic symptom produced in cotton by?
Explanation: The larva of the spotted bollworm (Earias spp.) bores into the flower buds (squares) of cotton. This damage causes the bracts to open up, giving them a flared appearance, which is known as "flared squares."
24. Gujarat-67 and American nectarless are parents of cotton variety?
Explanation: The pioneering commercial cotton hybrid, H-4, was developed by crossing 'Gujarat-67' as the female parent and 'American Nectariless' as the male parent.
25. Ultra-narrow-row (UNR) was developed in:
Explanation: Ultra-Narrow-Row (UNR) cotton is a high-density planting system with row spacing of 20-25 cm. This system was developed primarily in the USA to optimize the use of short-season varieties and specialized harvesting equipment.
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Cotton + Jute
1. Jute Research Institute is located at ____
Explanation: The Central Research Institute for Jute and Allied Fibres (CRIJAF) is located at Barrackpore, Kolkata, West Bengal. It is the premier institute for jute research in India.
2. Choose correct :-
Explanation: 'Tirak' is a physiological disorder in cotton that results in the premature or faulty opening of bolls, often due to nutrient deficiency or moisture stress. Monopodial branches are vegetative, and sympodial branches are reproductive. Seed with lint is called seed cotton.
3. Which of the following practice is performed 1st in Cotton Seed Processing?
Explanation: Ginning is the very first step in processing. It is the process of separating the cotton fibers (lint) from the seeds. All other processes like cleaning, delinting, and grading follow ginning.
4. First extra long-staple variety of cotton is:
Explanation: MCU-5, also known as 'Madras Cambodia Uganda-5', was a landmark variety released in India, being the first extra-long staple variety developed from an interspecific cross.
5. The best Egyptian cotton variety is:
Explanation: Suvin is a renowned extra-long staple cotton variety developed in India from a cross between 'Sujata' and 'St. Vincent'. It is known for its exceptional fiber quality, comparable to the best Egyptian cottons.
6. Seed rate of jute:-
Explanation: For line sowing, the recommended seed rate for white jute (C. capsularis) is 6-8 kg/ha. For Tossa jute (C. olitorius), it is lower, around 4-5 kg/ha.
7. Which of the following branches are reproductive branches in cotton?
Explanation: In cotton, sympodial branches are the fruiting or reproductive branches that bear the squares, flowers, and bolls. Monopodial branches are the vegetative branches.
8. Little leaf in cotton is due to deficiency of:
Explanation: Little leaf, a condition where the leaves are abnormally small and clustered, is a classic symptom of Zinc (Zn) deficiency in cotton.
9. The cotton seed has poisonous alkaloid _______
Explanation: Cotton plants, particularly the seeds, contain a toxic polyphenolic compound called Gossypol, which protects the plant from pests but is toxic to non-ruminant animals if consumed in large quantities.
10. The world’s first interspecific hybrid of cotton is:
Explanation: Varalaxmi, released in 1972, was the first interspecific hybrid cotton variety in the world, developed from a cross between G. hirsutum and G. barbadense.
11. Delinting/deffusing:-
Explanation: Delinting (removing fuzz) using concentrated sulphuric acid helps in easier mechanical sowing, destroys seed-borne pathogens like bollworm eggs, and allows for better grading of seeds.
12. Crinkle leaf of cotton is due to?
Explanation: Crinkle leaf is a physiological disorder in cotton caused by Manganese (Mn) toxicity, which typically occurs in acidic, waterlogged soils.
13. In Cotton Seed After removing its lint, it is called as?
Explanation: The term 'cotton seed' refers to the seed itself after the long fibers (lint) have been removed through ginning. 'Seed cotton' is the term for the harvested product before ginning, which includes both the seed and the lint.
14. S1:- Fruit of cotton is called Boll. S2:- H-4 hybrid of cotton was released from Surat.
Explanation: Both statements are correct. The fruit of the cotton plant is a capsule, which is technically called a boll. The revolutionary H-4 hybrid was developed at the Main Cotton Research Station of Gujarat Agricultural University in Surat.
15. Leading jute-producing state in India is:
Explanation: West Bengal is the largest producer of jute in India, accounting for a significant majority of the country's total production, due to its favorable alluvial soil and climatic conditions.
16. An Eco-friendly & efficient method of delinting cotton seed is?
Explanation: Gas delinting, which uses gases like hydrogen chloride, is considered more eco-friendly and efficient than the wet acid method (H_2SO_4) as it avoids the problem of acid effluent disposal.
17. Which of the following is a parenchymatous fiber?
Explanation: This is a trick question. Fibers are made of sclerenchyma tissue, not parenchyma. However, in the context of commercial fibers, jute is a bast fiber derived from the phloem, which contains parenchyma cells, unlike cotton which is a single-celled seed hair.
18. S1:- All India coordinated cotton improvement project was started in 1970. S2:- Reproductive branches in cotton are known as sympodial branches.
Explanation: S1 is incorrect; the All India Coordinated Cotton Improvement Project (AICCIP) was started in 1967. S2 is correct; sympodial branches are the fruiting branches that bear flowers and bolls.
19. The art of making cloth from cotton was first developed in __________.
Explanation: India is considered one of the cradles of the cotton industry, with archaeological evidence of cotton cultivation and weaving dating back thousands of years to the Indus Valley Civilization.
20. The process of dipping jute bundles in water is called ______
Explanation: Steeping is the initial step of soaking the bundled jute stalks in water to initiate the retting process. Retting itself is the microbial decomposition that follows.
21. The word Fuzz refers to ____
Explanation: Fuzz refers to the short, coarse fibers that remain attached to the cotton seed after the long, fine fibers (lint) have been removed by ginning.
22. One bale contains lint ____
Explanation: A standard bale of cotton lint in India and for international trade weighs 170 kg. A bale of jute weighs 180 kg.
23. S1:- The main stem of the cotton plant is sympodial. S2:- Cotton is also known as white gold.
Explanation: S1 is incorrect; the main stem of the cotton plant exhibits monopodial growth (it grows from a single point). The branches can be monopodial (vegetative) or sympodial (fruiting). S2 is correct; cotton is often called "white gold" due to its economic importance.
24. Cotton is also known as _______
Explanation: Due to its high economic value as a cash crop and its white, fluffy appearance, cotton has earned the nickname "white gold."
25. Removing of terminal growing point of each plant in cotton is called as?
Explanation: Topping is the practice of removing the terminal growing point of the cotton plant to arrest its vertical growth and encourage the development of more sympodial (fruiting) branches, leading to a higher yield. Nipping usually refers to a similar practice in gram.
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Groundnut + Potato
1. National Research Centre for Groundnut is located at
Explanation: The ICAR-Directorate of Groundnut Research (DGR), formerly known as the National Research Centre for Groundnut (NRCG), is located in Junagadh, Gujarat. This location is appropriate as Gujarat is the largest groundnut-producing state in India.
2. The gynophore in groundnut is commonly referred to as _____
Explanation: After fertilization, the stalk of the groundnut ovary elongates, becomes positively geotropic (grows downwards), and penetrates the soil. This specialized stalk, which carries the fertilized ovules, is called a gynophore or, more commonly, a 'peg'.
3. Round Production:-
Explanation: The "Round Revolution" refers to the massive increase in potato production in India. The term is inspired by the round shape of the potato tuber.
4. The English name of monkey nut is ___
Explanation: Groundnut (Arachis hypogaea) is known by several common names in English, including peanut, earthnut, goober, and monkey nut.
5. S1:- Sandy Soil are good for potato cultivation.
S2:- The colour of tuber variety Kufri Sinduri is white.
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct; sandy or sandy loam soils are ideal for potato as they offer low resistance to tuber expansion and make harvesting easier. Statement 2 is incorrect; 'Kufri Sinduri' is named for its distinctive red-colored skin ('sinduri' means vermilion).
6. The legume crop treated as oil seed crop is ______
Explanation: Groundnut is botanically classified as a legume (family Fabaceae). However, due to the high oil content in its seeds (45-55%), it is commercially cultivated and classified as an oilseed crop.
7. Black heart of potato is due to
Explanation: Black heart is a non-pathogenic, physiological disorder of potato tubers. It occurs when the tubers are deprived of sufficient oxygen (O_2), leading to asphyxiation and death of the internal tissues, which then turn black. This often happens during improper storage.
8. TPS is associated with
Explanation: TPS stands for True Potato Seed. It refers to the botanical seeds produced by the potato flower, which are used as an alternative propagation material to the traditional method of planting vegetative tubers.
9. Tikka is a disease of ____
Explanation: Tikka disease, also known as leaf spot disease, is one of the most significant fungal diseases affecting groundnut worldwide. It is caused by two species of the fungus Cercospora.
10. Central Potato Research Institute is located at
Explanation: The Central Potato Research Institute (CPRI), the apex body for potato research in India, has its headquarters in Shimla, Himachal Pradesh.
11. _________ fertilizer is not recommended for potato crop.
Explanation: Potassium Chloride (KCl or Muriate of Potash) is generally avoided for potatoes. The chloride (Cl
−
) ion is known to reduce the dry matter and starch content of the tubers, thereby affecting their processing quality and taste. Potassium Sulphate is the preferred source of potassium.
12. S1:- Dormancy of potato can be broken by Thiourea.
S2:- Potato is a rich source of starch.
Explanation: Both statements are correct. Treating seed potatoes with a 1% solution of Thiourea is a standard practice to break dormancy before planting. Potatoes are a staple food crop valued for their high carbohydrate content, primarily in the form of starch.
13. International Year of Potato
Explanation: The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations declared the year 2008 as the International Year of the Potato to raise awareness about the nutritional and economic importance of the crop.
14. Deep ploughing for the groundnut sowing should be avoided because ____
Explanation: Deep ploughing can cause the pegs (gynophores) to penetrate deeper and the pods to form at greater depths in the soil. This makes the harvesting operation of digging up the pods more difficult and can lead to significant yield losses.
15. The Pops in groundnut is due to deficiency of
Explanation: "Pops" is a condition in groundnut where the shells develop but the kernels inside are either shriveled or absent. This is a classic symptom of Calcium (Ca) deficiency, as calcium is directly absorbed by the pods from the soil and is essential for kernel development.
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Groundnut + Potato
1. Potato is
Explanation: A potato is a tuber, which is a swollen, fleshy, underground storage organ that develops from the stem of the plant. The "eyes" on a potato are actually nodes from which new shoots can grow, confirming its nature as a modified stem.
2. S1:- Aflatoxin in groundnut is produced by Aspergillus.
S2:- Gypsum is the cheapest source of calcium and sulphur in groundnut.
Explanation: Both statements are correct. Aflatoxin, a potent carcinogen, is produced by the fungus Aspergillus flavus which can infect groundnut pods. Gypsum (calcium sulphate) is a widely recommended and inexpensive fertilizer for groundnut as it supplies both calcium and sulphur, which are essential for pod development.
3. Which vegetable belongs to the group of bulb crops?
Explanation: Garlic, like onion, is a bulb crop. The edible part is a true bulb, consisting of a short, compressed stem and fleshy leaf bases (cloves) that store food. Beetroot is a modified taproot, and potato is a modified stem (tuber).
4. Unfilled pods indicate the deficiency of _____
Explanation: Boron (B) is crucial for pollen viability, fertilization, and seed development in many plants, especially legumes. A deficiency of boron can lead to poor pollination and result in unfilled or poorly developed pods. In groundnut specifically, unfilled pods (pops) are a classic symptom of Calcium deficiency.
5. The origin of groundnut is considered as
Explanation: The center of origin for cultivated groundnut (Arachis hypogaea) is believed to be in South America, specifically in the region encompassing Brazil, Bolivia, and northern Argentina.
6. Indicator plant for Potassium is:-
Explanation: An indicator plant is one that shows clear and distinct deficiency symptoms for a particular nutrient. Potato has a high requirement for potassium and readily shows deficiency symptoms like scorching on the margins of older leaves, making it a good indicator plant for K.
7. Thiourea is used to break dormancy in
Explanation: Potato tubers have a natural dormant period after harvest. To promote sprouting for the next planting season, a 1% solution of Thiourea is commonly used as a chemical treatment to break this dormancy.
8. Which plant is used as an indicator plant of moisture stress for scheduling irrigation?
Explanation: Sunflower is highly sensitive to water stress and shows visible wilting symptoms earlier than many other crops. Because of this, it is sometimes planted in a small section of a field to act as a visual indicator of when irrigation is needed for the main crop.
9. Groundnut seed is known as
Explanation: The edible part of the groundnut, which is the seed found inside the shell, is correctly referred to as the kernel. The entire shell with the seeds inside is called the pod. A caryopsis is the fruit type of grasses.
10. Which one is the frost-sensitive crop?
Explanation: The foliage of the potato plant is extremely susceptible to frost damage. Freezing temperatures can kill the leaves and stems, leading to significant yield losses, making it a highly frost-sensitive crop.
11. In Groundnut, seed dormancy is a problem in
Explanation: Spreading type groundnut varieties (subspecies hypogaea) typically exhibit fresh seed dormancy, meaning the seeds will not germinate immediately after harvest. Bunch type varieties (subspecies fastigiata) generally do not have this dormancy, so their seeds can be used for sowing soon after harvest.
12. True potato seed:-
Explanation: The seed rate for True Potato Seed (TPS) is extremely low, around 100-150 grams per hectare, compared to 2-3 tonnes/ha for traditional tuber planting. The TPS technology was pioneered by Dr. S. Ramanujam at CPRI, not Nagarjun.
13. Green tuber in potato is formed due to the synthesis of ____
Explanation: When potato tubers are exposed to light, they produce chlorophyll (which makes them green) and also a toxic glycoalkaloid compound called solanine. Solanine is bitter and can be harmful if consumed in large quantities.
14. Seed plot technique (SPT):-
Explanation: Both statements are correct. The Seed Plot Technique (SPT) was developed by Dr. Pushkarnath at CPRI. It is a method to produce healthy, virus-free seed potatoes in the northern plains by raising the crop during the low-aphid period.
15. In which crop is earthing up an important cultural operation?
Explanation: Earthing up, or hilling soil around the base of the plants, is a crucial operation in potato cultivation. It helps to cover the developing tubers, preventing them from turning green (due to solanine formation) when exposed to sunlight, and also provides support to the plant.
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Mustard
1. Inflorescence of mustard
Explanation: The inflorescence of mustard is a corymbose raceme. It is an arrangement of flowers on a central axis where the lower flowers have longer stalks than the upper ones, bringing all flowers to roughly the same level.
2. Name of antinutritional substance present in soybean
Explanation: Raw soybeans contain trypsin inhibitors, which are proteins that block the action of the digestive enzyme trypsin, thereby interfering with protein digestion. Cooking or heat treatment deactivates these inhibitors.
3. Mustard cake is not suitable for human purposes due to the presence of
Explanation: Mustard cake, the residue left after oil extraction, contains high levels of glucosinolates. These compounds give mustard its characteristic pungency but can have goitrogenic (thyroid-interfering) effects, making the unprocessed cake unsuitable for human or monogastric animal consumption.
4. Which state ranks 1st in mustard productivity?
Explanation: While Rajasthan has the largest area and total production of mustard, Haryana often records the highest productivity (yield per unit area) due to widespread irrigation and higher input management.
5. Pusa Jai Kisan is the variety of __
Explanation: 'Pusa Jai Kisan' is a well-known variety of Indian Mustard (Brassica juncea). It was the first variety developed through somaclonal variation, a tissue culture technique.
6. S1: B. campestris possesses 2n = 20 chromosomes and is also used as a parent in mustard breeding.
S2: B. juncea is the progeny of B. campestris and B. nigra.
Explanation: Both statements are correct. Indian mustard (B. juncea) is an amphidiploid that originated from a natural cross between B. campestris (one of its parents) and B. nigra. Thus, S1 correctly identifies one of the parents mentioned in S2, establishing a direct explanatory link.
7. The scientific name of rai is ___
Explanation: 'Rai', 'Laha', or Indian mustard are common names for the species Brassica juncea.
8. Choose the incorrect statement for mustard.
Explanation: The genetic origin of Indian mustard (B. juncea, 2n=36) is from a cross between B. nigra (n=8, BB genome) and B. campestris (n=10, AA genome). The formula in option D incorrectly states the chromosome number of the second parent as n=9 (which is for B. oleracea).
9. Dropsy disease is associated with
Explanation: Epidemic dropsy is a clinical condition caused by consuming mustard oil that has been adulterated with oil from the seeds of Mexican poppy (Argemone mexicana). The toxic alkaloids (sanguinarine) from the poppy seeds cause widespread capillary leakage.
10. Constraints/causes for low yield potential in mustard? Choose the correct answer.
Explanation: A major constraint in bridging the yield gap in mustard is the lack of a robust system for the timely production and distribution of quality seeds of improved, high-yielding varieties to farmers.
11. Incorrect match regarding mustard disease
Explanation: All the given pairs of diseases and their causal organisms are correctly matched. These are all common and significant diseases that affect mustard and other cruciferous crops. Therefore, none of the matches are incorrect.
12. The fruit of mustard is called as ___
Explanation: The characteristic fruit of plants in the mustard family (Brassicaceae) is a siliqua. It is a type of dry, dehiscent fruit that splits open at maturity to release the seeds.
13. Incorrect statement regarding mustard
Explanation: DMH-11 (Dhara Mustard Hybrid-11) is the first genetically modified (GM) mustard developed in India. NRCHB 506 is a popular non-GM hybrid variety. All other statements are correct.
14. Choose the incorrect match
Explanation: The incorrect match is 'B. juncea - Indian rapeseed'. B. juncea is correctly known as Indian Mustard or Rai. The term 'rapeseed' generally refers to varieties of B. napus and B. campestris.
15. Oilseed crops require the application of ____
Explanation: Sulphur is a vital secondary nutrient for all crops, but it is particularly important for oilseed crops. It is a key component of certain amino acids and is essential for the synthesis of oils, thus directly impacting both the yield and quality of the oil.
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Mustard
1. What is anthesis?
Explanation: Anthesis is a botanical term that refers to the period during which a flower is fully open and functional, from the opening of the bud to the setting of the fruit. It is the phase of flowering when pollination can occur.
2. Taramira is also known as ______
Explanation: Taramira, with the scientific name Eruca sativa, is also popularly known as rocket or arugula. It is a highly drought-tolerant oilseed crop.
3. Mustard oil contains
Explanation: The characteristic pungency or sharp taste of mustard oil is due to the presence of Allyl isothiocyanate. This compound is released when the glucosinolate sinigrin is broken down by the enzyme myrosinase.
4. Incorrect statement
Explanation: All the statements are correct. Traditional mustard oil is characterized by the presence of erucic acid. The mustard plant contains sulfur compounds called glucosinolates, of which sinigrin is a specific type found in black mustard. Therefore, none of the statements are incorrect.
5. S1: NRC for Rapeseed and Mustard is located at Bharatpur
S2: Seed coat of rapeseed is rough
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct; the Directorate of Rapeseed-Mustard Research (DRMR), formerly the National Research Centre (NRC), is located at Sewar, Bharatpur in Rajasthan. Statement 2 is incorrect; the seed coat of rapeseed is generally smooth.
6. S1: Broomrape is a parasitic weed of mustard.
S2: Orobanche is an obligate root parasitic weed.
Explanation: Both statements are true. Broomrape is the common name for the parasitic weed genus Orobanche. It is an obligate root parasite, meaning it lacks chlorophyll and must attach to the roots of a host plant, like mustard, to survive.
7. Which crop is raised on very poor sandy soils with low rainfall?
Explanation: Taramira (Eruca sativa) is exceptionally hardy and well-adapted to arid and semi-arid conditions, making it suitable for cultivation on marginal, sandy soils where other rabi oilseeds might fail.
8. Soybean seed has an oil-to-protein ratio of about
Explanation: Soybean is unique among legumes, typically containing about 20% oil and 40% protein. This gives an approximate oil-to-protein ratio of 20:40, which simplifies to 1:2.
9. Correct statement is
Explanation: Brown sarson is a type of Indian rape, and its scientific name is Brassica rapa (syn. B. campestris). The cross for B. napus is B. rapa × B. oleracea. 'Sarson' is a general term, often referring to yellow sarson.
10. Choose the correct answer:
1. B. nigra (BB) n=8
2. B. oleracea (CC) n=9
3. B. napus (AB) 2n=19
4. B. campestris (AA) n=10
Explanation: Statements 1, 2, and 4 correctly describe the three basic diploid species in the 'Triangle of U' model of Brassica evolution. Statement 3 is incorrect; B. napus (AACC genome) is a tetraploid with 2n=38 chromosomes (haploid number n=19).
11. Bacterial species used for seed treatment in soybean is ___
Explanation: Different legume crops require specific species of Rhizobium for effective nitrogen fixation. The species that forms a symbiotic relationship with soybean is Rhizobium japonicum (also known as Bradyrhizobium japonicum).
12. Mustard crop should be sown between 15 to 25 October to protect the crop against
Explanation: Sowing mustard at the optimal time (mid-October) allows the crop to establish well and pass its vulnerable vegetative growth stage before the mustard aphid population builds up to damaging levels later in the season.
13. ________ is a concentrated organic manure.
Explanation: Organic manures are classified as bulky (like FYM, compost) or concentrated. Concentrated manures, such as oil cakes (e.g., mustard cake), have a much higher concentration of plant nutrients per unit of weight compared to bulky manures.
14. Choose the correct statement:
S1: Canola is a variety of mustard
S2: Canola is also known as the double zero (00) variety of mustard
S3: It possesses a high amount of glucosinolate
S4: It possesses a low level of erucic acid
Explanation: Canola refers to varieties of rapeseed (not mustard, though related) that are bred to be 'double zero' or 'double low' (S2), meaning they have low erucic acid (<2%) in the oil (S4) and low glucosinolates in the meal. Statement S3 is therefore incorrect. S1 is technically incorrect but often used loosely. Thus, S1, S2, and S4 are the intended correct statements.
15. Which variety of the following is related to oilseeds?
Explanation: 'Pusa Bold' is a popular, bold-seeded variety of Indian mustard, which is a major oilseed crop. Jaya is a variety of rice, Ganga 5 is a maize hybrid, and CSH-4 is a sorghum hybrid.
16. S1: Mustard is a cross-pollinated crop
S2: Leaves of mustard are sessile
Explanation: Both statements are incorrect. Mustard (B. juncea) is classified as an 'often cross-pollinated' crop, not strictly cross-pollinated. Mustard leaves are petiolate, meaning they are attached to the stem by a stalk (petiole), not sessile (attached directly).
17. The mustard crop is regarded ready for harvest when its siliquae turn in color
Explanation: Mustard should be harvested when the plants start turning yellowish and the siliquae (pods) change from green to a yellowish-brown color. Harvesting at this stage prevents shattering losses while ensuring the seeds are fully mature.
18. Which of the following is amphidiploid?
Explanation: An amphidiploid is a polyploid that arises from the hybridization of two different species. Brassica juncea (Indian mustard) is a classic example, having originated from a cross between B. rapa and B. nigra. The other three are basic diploid species.
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Sunflower-Castor-Safflower-Linseed
1. Linseed can be used as a crop?
Explanation: Linseed (Linum usitatissimum) is a dual-purpose crop. It is cultivated both for its seed, which is crushed to produce linseed oil, and for its stem fiber, which is known as flax and is used to make linen fabric.
2. Sunflower oil is rich in __________ acid which is useful for heart patients.
Explanation: Sunflower oil is an excellent source of linoleic acid, a polyunsaturated omega-6 fatty acid. Diets rich in this fatty acid can help reduce levels of LDL (bad) cholesterol in the blood, which is beneficial for cardiovascular health.
3. The fruit of linseed is called as
Explanation: The fruit of the linseed or flax plant is a dry, round capsule, which is commonly referred to as a "seed boll". Each boll contains several glossy, brown seeds.
4. Generally _______ oil cake is used as manure.
Explanation: Castor cake is non-edible and toxic to most livestock due to the presence of ricin. Therefore, unlike other oil cakes which are valuable animal feeds, castor cake is exclusively used as a rich source of organic manure.
5. ___ acts as a nitrification inhibitor?
Explanation: Neem cake contains several compounds, such as nimbin and nimbidin, that have been scientifically proven to inhibit the activity of nitrifying bacteria in the soil. This property helps in reducing the loss of nitrogen from fertilizers.
6. Castor grown around cotton is a trap crop for
Explanation: Castor is often planted as a border or trap crop around cotton fields because it is highly preferred by the female moths of the tobacco caterpillar, Spodoptera litura, for egg laying. This diverts the pest from the main cotton crop.
7. Castor belongs to family _____
Explanation: The castor bean or castor oil plant (Ricinus communis) is a member of the spurge family, Euphorbiaceae.
8. Fruit of castor is known as _______
Explanation: The fruit of the castor plant is a spiny, globose capsule which, upon maturity, splits open into three sections to release the seeds.
9. Which statement is correct regarding safflowers?
Explanation: Both statements are correct. Safflower oil is highly valued for its high percentage of unsaturated fatty acids (UFA), particularly linoleic acid. Diets rich in UFAs are recommended for heart patients as they help in lowering LDL (bad) cholesterol levels.
10. Choose correct statement for castor?
Explanation: Castor is a monoecious plant, which means it has separate male and female flowers on the same plant. These are typically arranged on the same inflorescence (a raceme), with female flowers on the upper part and male flowers on the lower part.
11. Choose incorrect statement for sunflower 🌻?
Explanation: Sunflower is a highly cross-pollinated crop, primarily by insects (entomophily). The term "often cross-pollinated" is an understatement, as self-pollination is very low and cross-pollination rates are typically above 90%. Therefore, this statement is the least accurate description.
12. The bold-seeded linseed is mainly grown for _________ purpose.
Explanation: This is a complex distinction. Generally, small-seeded varieties are preferred for oil, while bold-seeded types are used for direct consumption. However, in some contexts, varieties selected for fiber (flax) may have larger seeds as less energy is diverted to producing a high number of oil-rich seeds.
13. _________ cake has good vermicidal effect against white ants.
Explanation: Castor cake contains residual amounts of the toxic protein ricin and other compounds that have insecticidal and pest-repellent properties. When used as manure, it is known to deter soil pests like termites (white ants) and nematodes.
14. Castor cake contains ________, which are responsible for slow nitrification.
Explanation: The presence of toxic compounds like the protein Ricin in castor cake is believed to have an inhibitory effect on the population and activity of soil microorganisms, including the bacteria responsible for nitrification.
15. Oil used as greasing oil for lubrication
Explanation: Castor oil is unique among vegetable oils due to its high content of ricinoleic acid, which gives it a high and stable viscosity over a wide range of temperatures. This property makes it an excellent lubricant for high-performance engines and industrial machinery.
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Sunflower-Castor-Safflower-Linseed
1. Choose incorrect statement for sunflowers?
Explanation: This statement is incorrect because while a sunflower head does have two types of flowers (ray and disc florets), only the central disc florets are fertile and hermaphrodite. The outer ray florets (the 'petals') are sterile.
2. Leading linseed producing state in India is
Explanation: Madhya Pradesh is the largest producer of linseed in India, contributing a significant share to the country's total production, followed by states like Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh.
3. Which among the following oil seed crops is the richest source of ricinoleic acid?
Explanation: Castor oil is unique among vegetable oils, with its fatty acid composition being dominated (around 90%) by ricinoleic acid. This specific fatty acid is responsible for castor oil's high viscosity and medicinal properties.
4. Removal of flower buds from sunflower plant is termed as
Explanation: In some sunflower cultivation practices, the terminal bud is removed to encourage the growth of auxiliary buds, leading to multiple smaller heads. This practice is a form of nipping or topping. 'Arrowing' refers to sugarcane inflorescence.
5. The small seeded linseed is mainly grown for _________ purpose.
Explanation: Varieties of linseed that are selected for having small seeds generally have a higher oil content. Therefore, these types are primarily cultivated for the purpose of oil extraction.
6. Retting is a term associated with
Explanation: Retting is the microbial process of separating bast fibers from the plant's woody stalk. This process is essential for extracting fiber from jute, as well as from the linseed plant (when it is called flax). Therefore, it is associated with all of them.
7. Sunflower crop is grown in all seasons because of
Explanation: Sunflower is a day-neutral or photo-insensitive crop, which means its flowering is not dependent on specific day lengths. This characteristic allows it to be cultivated successfully throughout the year in Kharif, Rabi, and Zaid seasons.
8. The fibre of linseed is known as
Explanation: The fiber extracted from the stem of the linseed plant (Linum usitatissimum) is specifically called flax. The plant itself is often referred to as flax when grown for fiber, and linseed when grown for seed.
9. The head of sunflower turning towards the sun is termed as
Explanation: Heliotropism is the directional growth or movement of a plant in response to sunlight. Young sunflowers exhibit this phenomenon by tracking the sun's movement across the sky from east to west during the day.
10. Seed rate of safflower 15 to 18 kg/100000 m²
Explanation: This statement is true if the unit is assumed to be a typo for "kg/ha". The recommended seed rate for safflower is 15-20 kg per hectare (ha). 1 hectare equals 10,000 m², not 100,000 m². Assuming the intended unit was per hectare, the range is correct.
11. Oil used in oil paints
Explanation: Linseed oil is a "drying oil," meaning it has the ability to polymerize into a solid film when exposed to air. This unique property makes it a valuable binder in oil-based paints, varnishes, and wood finishes.
12. Reasons for spread of sunflowers in India?
Explanation: Sunflower's short duration, photo-insensitivity, and relative drought tolerance make it an ideal crop for contingency planning. It can be planted late if monsoons are delayed or if a main season crop fails, providing farmers with a viable alternative.
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Tobacco-Fodder
1. The basic aim of topping and desuckering in tobacco is?
Explanation: Topping (removal of the terminal bud/flower head) and desuckering (removal of axillary shoots) are done to stop the plant's reproductive phase. This redirects the plant's energy and nutrients towards the development of leaves, resulting in larger, thicker, and higher-quality tobacco leaves.
2. Bottom 3 to 4 leaves of tobacco is termed as ____
Explanation: The lowermost leaves on a tobacco plant are called 'sand leaves'. They are often of lower quality because they are older, may be damaged, and are frequently splashed with sand and soil during rainfall.
3. Excessive feeding of berseem in the young stage or when it is wet with dew in the morning causes bloat called __
Explanation: When ruminants consume lush, young legumes like berseem, rapid fermentation can produce a stable foam in the rumen that traps gas. This condition, where the animal is unable to eructate (belch), is called bloat or tympanites.
4. Which crop is not suitable for green manuring?
Explanation: Berseem is a valuable multi-cut fodder crop that is grown throughout the rabi season. It is not suitable for green manuring because it is slow-growing initially and its primary economic use is as high-quality animal feed. Dhaincha, Sannhemp, and Mungbean are fast-growing legumes ideal for this purpose.
5. Brix reading of juice indicates?
Explanation: A Brix reading, measured by a hydrometer or refractometer, indicates the percentage of Total Soluble Solids (TSS) in a liquid. In juices like that of sugarcane, the TSS is composed primarily of sugars (sucrose), along with some mineral salts and organic acids.
6. The word ‘Tobacco’ is derived from _______.
Explanation: The word 'tobacco' is believed to have originated from the Spanish word 'tabaco', which itself is thought to have been derived from 'Tobago', the name of a Y-shaped pipe used by the indigenous peoples of the Caribbean for smoking.
7. Forage yield of berseem crop is
Explanation: Berseem, known as the 'King of Fodders', is a multi-cut crop. Under good management with multiple cuttings, the total green forage yield can be very high, typically ranging from 800 to 1000 quintals per hectare.
8. Lucerne fed to animals in excess as green fodder causes _____
Explanation: Lucerne (alfalfa), like berseem, is a legume that contains high levels of protein and saponins. If fed in excess, especially when young and lush, it can cause frothy bloat in ruminant animals.
9. Central Tobacco Research Institute is located at __
Explanation: The Central Tobacco Research Institute (CTRI), the premier institute for tobacco research in India under ICAR, is located in Rajahmundry, Andhra Pradesh.
10. Fire curing is followed in
Explanation: Fire-curing is a process where tobacco is exposed to smoke from slow-burning hardwood fires. This method imparts a distinctive smoky aroma and flavor, and is used for certain types of pipe tobacco, snuff, and chewing tobacco.
11. Tobacco leaves contain an alkaloid known as _____
Explanation: Nicotine is the primary and most well-known alkaloid found in the leaves of the tobacco plant (Nicotiana spp.). It is a potent stimulant and is responsible for the addictive properties of tobacco products.
12. The root parasitic weed of tobacco crop is ____
Explanation: Orobanche, commonly known as broomrape, is a total root parasite that severely affects solanaceous crops like tobacco and tomato, as well as cruciferous crops like mustard.
13. Topping and desuckering are the important practices followed in _______.
Explanation: Topping (removing the flower head) and desuckering (removing side shoots) are crucial and unique intercultural operations performed in tobacco to improve the quality and size of the leaves.
14. The most popular method for potato planting is
Explanation: The standard method is the "ridge and furrow" method. Seed tubers are placed in furrows, and then soil is used to create a ridge over them. Therefore, both ridge and furrow are integral parts of the most popular planting method.
15. Which potassic fertilizer should not be applied to tobacco?
Explanation: Potassium chloride (Muriate of Potash) is avoided in high-quality tobacco production because the chloride ion (Cl−) accumulates in the leaves and severely impairs their burning quality, which is a critical characteristic for cigars and cigarettes. Potassium sulphate is the preferred source.
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Tobacco-Fodder
16. Indian Grassland and Forage Research Institute is located at
Explanation: The Indian Grassland and Fodder Research Institute (IGFRI), a premier institute under ICAR dedicated to research on forage crops and grasslands, is located in Jhansi, Uttar Pradesh.
17. Flue Cured Virginia (FCV) quality of tobacco is used in the manufacture of
Explanation: Flue-Cured Virginia (FCV) tobacco is characterized by its high sugar and low nicotine content, which results in a mild and aromatic smoke. These qualities make it the primary type of tobacco used globally for manufacturing cigarettes.
18. The seed rate of berseem is
Explanation: The standard recommended seed rate for a pure crop of berseem (Egyptian clover) is 25-30 kg per hectare. Therefore, the range of 20 to 30 kg/ha is the most appropriate answer.
19. The popular varieties of lucerne are
Explanation: All the names listed, including Anand-2, Anand-3, Sirsa-1, Moopa, and Rambler, are well-known cultivated varieties of lucerne (alfalfa).
20. The stimulant crop is ___
Explanation: Tobacco is classified as a stimulant crop because it contains the alkaloid nicotine, which has a stimulating effect on the central nervous system. Other crops fall into categories like pulses, tubers, or cereals.
21. Nicotine is produced in tobacco
Explanation: In the tobacco plant, the synthesis of the alkaloid nicotine primarily occurs in the roots. From the roots, it is then transported upwards through the xylem and accumulates in the leaves.
22. Tobacco requiring low nitrogen and harvested by priming method is known as _______
Explanation: Flue-curing tobacco, which is the main component of cigarettes, is grown with low nitrogen to produce leaves with high sugar and low nicotine content. The leaves are harvested individually as they ripen from the bottom up, a method known as priming.
23. Low quality of jute fibre is attributed to
Explanation: The quality and market price of jute fiber are heavily dependent on its color, luster, and strength. Any discoloration, such as darkening (shyamla) due to iron-rich retting water or uneven coloring from improper retting, significantly lowers its quality.
24. Method of harvesting tobacco is termed as?
Explanation: Priming is the harvesting method where individual tobacco leaves are picked as they reach the desired level of ripeness. This is in contrast to stalk-cutting, where the entire plant is harvested at once.
25. Orobanche is a ________.
Explanation: Orobanche (Broomrape) is a parasitic plant that lacks chlorophyll and cannot perform photosynthesis. It attaches to the roots of a host plant (like tobacco or mustard) and draws all its water and nutrients, making it a total root parasite.
26. The queen of fodder crops is ___
Explanation: Lucerne (Alfalfa) is hailed as the "Queen of Fodder Crops" due to its high yield, excellent nutritional value (high in protein, vitamins, and minerals), wide adaptability, and perennial nature. Berseem is known as the "King of Fodders".
27. The family of tobacco is ____
Explanation: Tobacco belongs to the genus Nicotiana, which is part of the Solanaceae family, also known as the nightshade family. This family also includes potato, tomato, chili, and brinjal.
28. Which of the following is known as desi tobacco?
Explanation: While N. rustica is often called Turkish or strong tobacco and is used in hookah, it is N. tabacum that is the most widely cultivated species globally and in India, from which various 'desi' or indigenous varieties used for bidi, chewing, etc., have been developed.
29. Ideal stage of jute harvesting for fibre purpose
Explanation: The ideal stage to harvest jute for fiber is at the small pod stage, which begins right after flowering. Harvesting at this time provides the best balance between fiber yield and quality. Both options essentially describe this same optimal harvesting window.
30. Which institution was recently renamed as the 'National Institute for Research on Commercial Agriculture' (NIRCA)?
Explanation: In 2024, the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) renamed the Central Tobacco Research Institute (CTRI) in Rajahmundry to the National Institute for Research on Commercial Agriculture (NIRCA) to reflect its expanded mandate on other high-value non-food crops.
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Fennel-BlackPepper-Cardamom
1. Botanical name of black pepper is…
Explanation: The botanical name for black pepper is Piper nigrum. Zingiber officinale is ginger, Elettaria cardamomum is cardamom, and Curcuma longa is turmeric.
2. Which among the following spices has a bushy growth habit?
Explanation: Cardamom is a herbaceous perennial that grows from a rhizome, producing several leafy shoots that form a clump, giving it a bushy appearance. Clove is a tree, while fenugreek and onion are smaller annual/biennial herbs.
3. Black pepper is a member of which family?
Explanation: Black pepper (Piper nigrum) belongs to the Piperaceae family, which is also known as the pepper family.
4. Cardamom is commonly propagated by ______.
Explanation: For establishing large plantations, cardamom is most commonly propagated through seeds raised in nurseries. Vegetative propagation using suckers (rhizome splits) is also done to multiply elite clones.
5. Botanical name of cardamom is…
Explanation: The botanical name for true or small cardamom is Elettaria cardamomum. It belongs to the ginger family, Zingiberaceae.
6. Black pepper is commercially propagated by ______.
Explanation: Black pepper is commercially propagated vegetatively using shoot cuttings. Cuttings from runner shoots are typically used for rapid multiplication of planting material.
7. Trigonella foenum-graecum is the botanical name of ______.
Explanation: Trigonella foenum-graecum is the botanical name for fenugreek, which is commonly known as Methi in India.
8. ‘Steeping’ is an essential operation of ______.
Explanation: Steeping is a key step in the preparation of white pepper. Ripe red pepper berries are steeped (soaked) in water for about a week to soften the outer skin (pericarp), which is then removed to reveal the white pepper kernel.
9. Aroma in coriander leaves and seed is due to the presence of ______ oil.
Explanation: The options provided are scientifically inaccurate. The primary aromatic compound in coriander seeds is an essential oil rich in linalool. The aroma of the leaves is due to various aldehydes. None of the given options are correct.
10. The centre of origin of black pepper is ______.
Explanation: Black pepper is native to the tropical rainforests of the Western Ghats mountain range in South India, which is considered its center of origin.
11. Plants and their products used as food adjuncts to add flavour or aroma are called ______.
Explanation: Spices are dried parts of plants, such as seeds, fruits, roots, or bark, used in small quantities to flavor, color, or preserve food. Condiments are prepared sauces or seasonings added to food after cooking.
12. _________ is the major disease of fenugreek.
Explanation: Powdery mildew is one of the most common and destructive fungal diseases affecting fenugreek. It appears as a white, powdery growth on leaves and stems, leading to reduced yield and quality.
13. Which of the following is a chief constituent of clove seed?
Explanation: The characteristic aroma and medicinal properties of clove (which is a dried flower bud, not a seed) are primarily due to the essential oil it contains, of which eugenol is the main component (70-90%).
14. Which among the following is known as ‘green gold’?
Explanation: The term 'green gold' is not universally applied to one spice; it has been used for various valuable green-colored commodities like vanilla, tea, and even opium. In some local contexts, fresh coriander might be referred to this way due to its importance.
15. Which among the following is known as ‘king of spices’?
Explanation: Black pepper has been one of the most important and valuable spices in global trade for centuries, earning it the widely recognized title of "King of Spices." Cardamom is known as the "Queen of Spices."
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Fennel-BlackPepper-Cardamom
16. Seeds and leaves of coriander are rich in ______.
Explanation: Fresh coriander leaves (cilantro) are a particularly rich source of Vitamin A. While they contain other vitamins, Vitamin A is the most significant.
17. Fenugreek is commonly known as ______.
Explanation: In India, the common name for Fenugreek (Trigonella foenum-graecum) is Methi. It is used both as a leafy vegetable and as a spice (seeds).
18. Which among the following is known as ‘queen of spices’?
Explanation: Cardamom, with its intense aroma and high price, is often referred to as the "Queen of Spices". Black Pepper is known as the "King of Spices".
19. Choose the correct statement for buckwheat.
Explanation: There seem to be multiple inaccuracies in the question options. 'Tokyo' is a variety of buckwheat, not wheat. The fruit is an achene, not a caryopsis. The leaves contain rutin, but Harman is an alkaloid, not a plant growth regulator. The sowing time in June is context-dependent but plausible for a kharif crop. Given the clear errors in B, C, and D, A is the most likely intended correct answer.
20. Volatile oil of turmeric contains ______.
Explanation: Curcumin is the pigment responsible for the yellow color of turmeric. The aroma comes from the volatile essential oil, which is primarily composed of compounds like turmerone and ar-turmerone (turmenol). Zingiberene is found in ginger.
21. Which of the following leafy vegetables belongs to the Leguminosae family?
Explanation: Fenugreek (Trigonella foenum-graecum) is a legume and belongs to the family Leguminosae (or Fabaceae). Palak is in Amaranthaceae, and Coriander is in Apiaceae.
22. Choose the incorrect statement for coriander.
Explanation: The characteristic aroma and taste of coriander are due to an essential oil, which is rich in a compound called linalool. Oxalic acid does not contribute to its primary flavour. The other statements are correct.
23. _________ leaves are used for making chutney.
Explanation: The fresh green leaves of coriander, also known as cilantro or dhaniya, are a very popular ingredient in Indian cuisine, especially for making fresh chutneys.
24. Which of the following is a chief constituent of cardamom seed?
Explanation: The essential oil extracted from cardamom seeds, which gives it its distinct aroma, contains several compounds, with 1,8-cineole and α-terpinyl acetate being the most important chemical constituents.
25. Clove is a member of which family?
Explanation: Clove (Syzygium aromaticum) belongs to the Myrtaceae or myrtle family, which also includes plants like eucalyptus and guava.
26. Plants and their products made use as food adjuncts to add taste are called ______.
Explanation: The question is ambiguously worded. 'Spices' are used to add flavor and aroma, but 'aromatic plants' is a broader category from which spices are derived. Given the context, 'Spices' is the most specific and likely correct answer, although 'Aromatic plants' is also plausible.
27. Choose the incorrect statement for buckwheat.
Explanation: Buckwheat is a dicotyledonous plant and therefore has a dicot seed. The statement that it has a monocot seed is incorrect. The other statements are correct; it's a pseudocereal belonging to the Polygonaceae family.
28. Kasoori methi is a variety of ______.
Explanation: Kasoori Methi refers to dried fenugreek leaves, which are used as a herb with a slightly bitter but aromatic flavor. It is a specific type of Fenugreek product, named after the Kasur region of Punjab.
29. Which among the following states has the largest area under spice crops?
Explanation: Kerala, known as the "Spice Garden of India," has traditionally been the leading state in terms of both area and production of a wide variety of high-value spices like cardamom, black pepper, and ginger.
30. Volatile oil present in cumin is known as ______.
Explanation: The characteristic aroma of cumin seeds comes from its essential oil, the main component of which is cuminaldehyde, also known as Cuminol.
31. Choose the incorrect statement for fenugreek.
Explanation: The seed rate of 20-25 kg/acre is equivalent to 50-62.5 kg/ha, which is excessively high. The recommended seed rate for fenugreek is 20-25 kg per hectare, not per acre. The other statements are correct.
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